1. Where a Plaintiff is precluded by rules from institute further suit in respect of any particular cause of
action, he ____ to institute a suit in respect of such cause of action in any Court to which this
Code applies.
A. shall be allowed B. shall not be entitled
C. shall be required D. may not be allowed
2. Rejection of plaint under order 7 Rule 11 of the CPC is a/an ____.
A. Order B. Decree
C. Interim Order C. Both A and B
3. Under the CPC, a decree passed with the consent of the parties is known as ____.
A. Preliminary decree B. Compromise decree
C. Ex-parte decree D. Arbitral award
4. Section ____ of the CPC endorses the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be
necessary for the ends of justice.
A. 150 B. 152
C. 151 D. 149
5. Order ____ rule 13 of the CPC provides remedy against ex-parte decree.
A. 09 B.10
C. 11 D. 12
6. Additional evidence in Appellate Court can be produced only in cases enumerated in CPC under
____.
A Order 21 Rule 28 B. Order 41 Rule 01
C. Order 41 Rule 27 D. Order 41 Rule 01
7. Section 104 of the CPC deals with ____.
A. Appeal from final decree where no appeal from preliminary decree
B. Orders from which appeal lies
C. Appeal from original decree D. Other’s order
8. Principle of Res Sub-judice is contained in ____.
A. S9 of CPC B. S10 of CPC
C. S.12 CPC D. None of these
9. The court to amend a decree is the court that passed it. Where an appeal is preferred from a decree of a
court of first instance the Appellate Court may ____.
A. Dismiss the appeal under O. 41, r 11(1), without issuing any notice to the respondents
B. Confirm, reverse or vary the decree of the court of first instance (O. 41, r 32)
C. Either A or B D. None of these
10. The word ‘resides’ used in s. 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure means ?????.
A. Natural persons
19. Suits for compensation for wrongs to person or moveables
A, residing in 1 [Karachi], beats B in 2 [Quetta]. B may sue A either in 2 [Quetta] or 1 [Karachi]
11. Which of the following deals with where the subject- matter of the suit is immovable property in the Code of Civil Procedure? ????????
A. Order 5, Rule 30 B. Order 9, Rule 12
C. Order 7, Rule 3 D. Order 10, Rule 22
12. Which of the following deals with the procedure when party fails to present written statement called for by Court in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 30 B. Order 8, Rule 10
C. Order 6, Rule 10 D. Order 10, Rule 22
13. Decree-holder is ????????.
A. Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed
B. An order capable of execution has been made
C. Either A or B D. None of these
14. Criminal Procedure Code is ????????.
A. Unduly rigid and does not make room for any special law & procedure
B. Not unduly rigid and makes room for any special law & procedure and generally gives precedence to such special law and procedure (Reference: Section 1)
C. Not unduly rigid and makes room for any special law & procedure but generally gives precedence to the law & procedure given under the Code
D. Either A or C
15. What is true to Code of Criminal Procedure ????????.
A. It is mainly, though not purely, an adjective or procedural law
B. There are also certain provisions which are partly in the nature of substantive law
C. Both A. & B. (Reference: PLD 2002 Cent.St,1953)
D. Neither A nor B
16. Which classification of offence comes under Criminal Procedure Code? ????????
A. Cognizable & non-cognizable B. Summons cases & warrant cases
C. Bailable & non-bailable D. All of these
17. Classification of offences given in the Code of Criminal Procedure under ????????.
A. Section 320 B. The 1st Schedule
C. The 2nd Schedule D. Section 482
18. Cognizable offence under PPC has been defined ????????.
A. Under section 4A. of Cr.P.C. B. Under section 4(f) of Cr.P.C.
C. Under section 4(g) of Cr.P.C. D. Under section 4(h) of Cr.P.C.
19. In a cognizable case under PPC, the police has the ????????.
A. Authority to arrest a person without warrant
B. Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate????????
C. Both A. & B. (Reference: Section 54, 156)
D. Either A or B
20. In a cognizable case under PPC, the police will have all the powers to ????????.
A. Investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B. Investigate including the power to arrest without warrant (Reference: Section 54, 156)
C. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
D. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence.
21. A Magistrate of the 1st Class or 2nd Class Magistrate specially empowered has the power to direct the police to investigate into non cognizable offence in PPC under ????????.
A. Section 156(1) of Cr PC B. Section 156(2) of Cr PC
C. Section 155(2) of Cr PC D. All of these
22. A Magistrate has the power under Cr. P.C. to direct the police to investigate into ????????.
A. A non-cognizable offence B. A cognizable offence
C. Only a non-cognizable offence, as in a cognizable offence the police is under a duty to investigate
D. Both A and B (Reference: Section 156(3)
23. In a non-cognizable case under PPC, the police has the authority ????????.
A. To investigate into the offence without order given by the Magistrate but cannot arrest the accused without warrant
B. To investigate and even arrest the accused without warrant
C. Neither to investigate without order of the Magistrate nor can arrest the accused without warrant (Reference: Section 154, 156)
D. Cannot investigate without orders of the Magistrate but can arrest without warrant.
24. Non-cognizable offence has been defined ????????.
A. Under section 4(m) B. Under section 4(p)
C. Under section 4(i) D. Under section 4(n).
25. A case which includes cognizable offences and non-cognizable offences is ????????.
A. A cognizable case but requires sanction of the Magistrate for investigation into the non-cognizable part under section 155(2) of Cr PC
B. A cognizable case and as such the investigation of the case does not require any sanction of the Magistrate under section 155(2) of Cr PC
C. A non-cognizable case and as such the investigation of the case requires sanction of the Magistrate under section 155(2) of Cr PC
26. Predecessor is ??????.
A. One who goes after another in a given state, position or office, and does not necessarily expresses any relation of illegal privity
B. One who goes before another in a given state, position or office, and does not necessarily expresses any relation of legal privity (Reference: Section 350)
C. One who goes before another in a given state, position or office, and does nofnecessarily expresses any relation of illegal privity
D. One who goes after another in a given state, position or office, and does not necessarily expresses any relation of legal privity
27. Which section of Cr. P.C. contemplates service of summons?
A. Section 20 B. Section 40
C. Section 50 D. Section 69
28. Which of the following deals with the discharge from custody?
A. Section 403 Cr. P.C. B. Section 500 Cr. P.C.
C. Section 388 Cr. P.C. D. Section 512 Cr. PC
29. One fact is said to be ??????to another when the one is connected with the other in any of the way referred to in the provisions of the Order relating to the relevancy of facts.
A. Corroborated B. Disputed
C. Irrelevant D. Relevant
30. In a criminal case if the prosecution fails to discharged its burden ??????.
A. The accused is settled B. The accused is acquitted
C. Burden shifts on the accused to prove innocence
D. The prosecution is given chance to reinvestigate
31. Mr. A sues Mr. B for Rs. 1,000 and shows entries in account books showing Mr. B to be indebted to him this amount. The entries are ??????without other evidence, to prove the debt.
A. Sometime relevant, but not good
B. Except the contents of classified documents
C. Very strong proof
D. Relevant but are not sufficient
32. As per Article 70 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984, “All facts, evidence”. ??????
A. Including the contents of documents
B. Except the contents of classified documents
C. Except the contents of unattested documents
D. Except the contents of documents
may be proved oral
33. The contents of documents may be proved ??????.
A. Only by primary evidence B. Only by secondary evidence
C. Either by primary or by secondary evidence
D. Only by oral evidence
34. Relevant facts are those facts which ???????.
A. Are relevant in accordance with any law other than Qanun-e-Shahadat Order
B. Are declared to be relevant by the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order.
C. Appears to be relevant from the circumstances
D. Both B and C
35. Article 20 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 is EXCEPTION to which of the following rule of evidence?
A. Evidence of facts similar to but not part of main fact, is not in general, admissible to prove its existence
B. Exclusion of character when the character is not in issue.
C. Exclusion of opinion evidence D. Exclusion of hearsay evidence
36. Dying declaration of child is ???????.
A. Admissible B. Not admissible
C. Partly admissible D. None of these
37. Under article 68 ???????.
A. Evidence of bad character except reply is inadmissible.
B. Evidence of bad character is admissible in all cases
C. Evidence of bad character is admissible only in trial of capital cases
D. None of these
38. A person is not competent to testify if he has been convicted by the court for ???????.
A. Perjury B. giving false evidence
C. Both A and B D. None of these
39. A fact in issue is a fact ???????.
A. Relevant to proceedings B. Asserted by one and denied by other party
C. Necessary to introduce relevant facts
D. None of these
40. “Expert” means ???????.
A. A person who is more skillful
B. A person who is well qualified and holds recognition of law
C. A person who is skilled by special study or experience and has adequate knowledge of the subject
D. None of these
41. Examination in chief is ???????.
A. The examination in court of law B. The examination of witness by party who called
C. The examination of witness by opposite party
D. None of these
42. It is the duty of advocates to appear in Court when a matter is called and if it so possible to make
???????.
A. Good use of his capabilities B. Satisfactory alternative arrangements
C. Application in advance D. The best use of enabling facilities
43. As per rule 174-A of the Canons of Professional Conduct and Etiquettes of Advocates, ???????his previous designation or post such as “Retired Justice”, “Ex Judge”, “ Retired General” etc during the period of his practice as an Advocate at any time.
A. No Advocate will use B. Any Senior advocate may use
C. All advocates can use D. All advocates except the public prosecutor can use
44. Non- observance or violation of the canons of professional conduct and etiquette mentioned in Chapter XII by an advocate shall be deemed to ???????.
A. Breach of trust B. An offence
C. Professional misconduct making him liable for disciplinary action
D. Breach of professional ethics resulting cancellation of his license
45. The Pakistan legal practitioners and Bar Council rules were formulated in the year ???????. A. 1956 B. 1962
C. 1976 D. None of these
46. Which is the accurate description of legal positivism?
A. It perceives law as commands B. It regards moral and law as inseparable
C. It regards a legal order as a closed logical system
D. It espouses the view that there is no necessary connection between the morality and law
47. Principle “Jes soli means” ???????.
A. Grant of nationality on the basis of place birth
B. Grant of nationality on the basis of blood relationship
C. Grant of nationality through naturalization
D. None of these
48. The two elements necessary for the completion of acquisition of possession are ???????.
A. Mens rea & Actus rea B. Animus & Corpus
C. Animus & Ownership D. None of these
49. What is positivism?
A. The approach to the study of law according to which only laws posited by their rightful creators are valid
B. The approach to the study of law according to which all morla, social or legal norms are part of law
C. The approach to the study of law according to which only laws democratically enacted are valid
D. None of these
50. Analytical Jurisprudence is ???????.
A. The critical analysis of legal decisions
B. A sociological method to analyze legal systems
C. To answer the questions what is law
D. None of these
51. Offence of Qatl-e-Amad can be compound by the _ ???????.
A. Legal Heirs of the victim B. Complainant
C. Court D. Advocate
52. Qisas for Qatl-e-Amad shall not be enforced ???????.
A. When the offender dies before the enforcement of the Qisas
B. When the offender punished with Tazir
C. When the offender has close relation with the victim
D. None of these
53. The word “jurh” has been defined in Pakistan Penal Code (1860) in section ???????. A. 337 B. 337-A
C. 337-B D. 337-C
54. A voluntarily burns a valuable security belonging to Z intending to cause wrongful loss to Z. A has committed ???????.
A. Mischief B. Nuisance
C. Both A and B D. Cheating
55. Attempt to commit suicide is ???????.
A. Not punishable at all
B. Is punishable with simple imprisonment of 3 months or with fine or with both
C. Is punishable with imprisonment of 6 months or with fine or with both
D. Is punishable with imprisonment of one year or with fine or with both
56. Qatl-e-Amad not liable to Qisas ???????.
A. If the offender is close related of the victim
B. IF the offender is a husband of the victim
C. When the offender is a minor or insane D. All of these
57. Which of these is not the kind of Shajjah?
A. Mudihah B. Manaqillah
C. Badiah D. Amah
58. The word “Injury” denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to person ???????.
A. In body B. Mind
C. Reputation or property D. All of these
59. Common Intention is disclosed by ???????.
A. The statement of the complaint
B. The facts disclosed in the evidence and surrounding circumstances of the case.
C. The statement of the policy officer
D. The statement of the accused
60. Under Article 164 of Qannon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984, if production of any evidence has become possible because of modern devices then ???????.
A. It is binding on the Court to consider such evidence
B. It is binding on the Court not to on consider such evidence.
C. It is on the discretion of the Court to consider such evidence
D. None of these
61. Article 22 of the Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 deals with??????
A. Relevancy of Fact forming part of some transactions
B. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct
C. Facts necessary to explain to introduce relevant facts
D. Things said or done by conspiration is reference to common design.
62. Which article of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order contains Plea of Alibi?
A. Art 26 B. Art 24
C. Art 28 D. Art 22
63. Leading Questions may be asked in .
A. Examination in Chief B. Cross-Examination
C. Both A and B D. Re-Examination
64. The Principle of “Res gestae” is incorporated I article ??????of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order. A. 17 B. 19
C. 21 D. 23.
65. Article 151 of the Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 deals with ??????.
A. Procedure of Court in Cases of defamation, liable and slander
B. Exclusion of evidence to contract answers to questions testing veracity
C. Question by party to his own witness
D. Impeaching credit of witness
66. Marriage entered into by a female who has not yet attained puberty is ??????.
A. Valid marriage B. Irregular marriage
C. Void marriage D. Invalid marriage
67. According to “Hanfi Law of Inheritance” there are ??????.
A. 2 Classes of Heirs B. 3 Classes of Heirs
C. 4 Classes of Heirs D. 5 Classes of Heirs
68. Onus Probandi means ??????.
A. Burden of proof B. Burden of proof
C. Estoppel D. None is correct
69. Bar to further suit is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure.
A. Section 11 B. Section 16
C. Section 13 D. Both A and B
70. Which of the following does not deals with final determination of contested questions and have the binding effect in future litigation?
A. Res Subjudice B. Res judicata
C. Stare decisis D. Both A and B
71. Under order 7 Rule 11 of the Code. The plaint shall not be rejected.
A. where it is not filed in duplicate
B. where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
C. where the plaintiff fails to comply with the provision or rule 9
D. where it discloses cause of action
72. A statement given by judge on the ground of decree or order is called ??????.
A. Plaint B. Written statement
C. Judgment D. Summons
73. Suits for the recovery of movable property actually under distant or attachment shall be instituted in the Court within the local limit of whose jurisdiction the ??????.
A. Defendant is resides B. The plaintiff is resides
C. Property is situated D. Any of these
74. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the person or to moveable property, where the wrong was done within the local jurisdiction of one court and the defendant resides within the local limits of another court. ??????
A. Can be instituted in the Court within whose local jurisdiction the wrong has been committed
B. Can be instituted in the court within whose local jurisdiction the defendant resides
C. Either A or B at the option of the plaintiff
D. Anywhere in Pakistan
75. Suit in respect of immovable property, where the entire relief sought can be obtained through the personal obedience of the defendant, can be instituted in a court within whose local jurisdiction. ??????
A. The property is situated
B. The defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
C. The defendant voluntarily resides or personally works for gain
D. All of these
76. Under section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in ??????.
A. The district court B. the court of the lowest grade
C. The court of higher grade D. All of these
77. A decision or finding given by a court or a tribunal without jurisdiction ??????.
A. Can operate as res-judicata under all circumstances
B. Cannot operate as res-judicata
C. Can operate as res-judicata under certain circumstances only
D. May operate as res-judicata or may not operate as res-judicata
78. In a suit, where the doctrine of res-judicata applies, the suit is liable to be ??????.
A. Stayed B. May be stayed & may be dismissed
C. Both A and B D. Dismissed
79. Constructive res-judicata is contained in ??????.
A. Explanation III o section 11 B. Explanation IV to section 11
C. Explanation VI to section 11 D. Explanation VII to section 11.
80. Principle of res-judicata applies ??????.
A. To suits only B. To execution proceedings
C. To arbitration proceedings D. To suits as well as execution proceedings
2B
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20B
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